The cover claims that Logan makes plain how
"Shakespeare incorporated into his own work the dramaturgical and literary devices that resulted in Marlowe's artistic and commercial success, and how the mechanics of Marlowe's artistry led him [Shakespeare] to absorb and develop 3 powerful influences of Marlowe"
a) his remarkable dexterity
b) his imaginative flexibilty in reconfiguring Standard notions of dramatic genres
c) his astute use of ambivalence and ambiguity
Shakspere and Marlowe, (born two months apart in 1564), never met. Marlowe, through an early artistic development phase (1578-1593), established himself as a precocious poet and theatrical genius (having written famous plays such as Tamburlaine, Doctor Faustus, Edward II) and a superstar of London theatre. His instant ‘death’, following a stabbing above the right eye, rolled seamlessly and within weeks into a new biography of the hitherto unknown writer, Shakespeare, who arrived 1593 with his successful opus.1 (Venus and Adonis) at a peak of literary mastery. Marlowe and Shakspere did not overlap in their creative activity for a single day. Their ignorance of each other is not even theoretically conceivable.
How could it happen that Robert Logan developed such an irrational bizarre perspective on Shakespeare and that he obviously was not willing to test the long established hypothesis of the Marlowe Shakespeare authorship theory ( at least as a working hypothesis) ?