But is that really true? Do the Apocrypha have nothing to do with the Shakespeare Authorship problem??
Shakespeare experts seem to never have asked why no English writer as a single Author has been credited with an apocryphal body of work other than William Shakespeare?
Why „The first part of the nature of woman. Fitly described in a Florentine Historie ( 1596) ", composed by C.M. and „The second part of the historie, called the nature of a woman .Contayning the end of the strife of Perseus and Theseus:“ compiled by C.M. 1596 are not likely Christopher Marlowe's Apocrypha ?
What is the fundamental cause why literary history has brought us such a unique bizarre jumble with Shakespeare's Apocrypha?