Why Shakespeare didn't contribute to the wealth of literature
in his own time? (List 1 and List2 , taken from EEBO)
One may ask why Shakespeare experts never systematically investigated the contexts in "Willobie his Avisa" 1(594), at least as a starting point for the plausible
[Marlowe equals Shakespeare]
Thesis = Deadly threatened Marlowe 1593 had to fake his death, to give up his identity and his name for safety resons, to live incognito and write continously under changing initials, pen names, pseudonyms or feignd identities (incl-Shake-speare) .
The title of the book "Willobie his Avisa" 1594 (of an unidentifiable author H.D. Hadrian Dorell), prompts us to read at first "the preface to the Reader"(-1-). The preface (-2-) informs us that from the 44th canto to the end of the booke the author identifies ("names") himself. From Canto44 (-3) we learn that pseudo-author H.W. (Henrico Willebago?) was suddenly infected with the contagion of a fantastical fit. The "fantasical fit" consisted in the transmission (exposition?) of the secresy of his disease [his name] from W.S.,William Shakspere ("... now newly recovered of the like infection...)
The preface clearly informs us (-4-) that though the matter is handled poetically, yet there is something under these fained names and showes that hath bene done truely. Now judge you....."
Our poet tried to reveal metaphorically in 1594 his situation. Why - on earth - the initials of W.C. could not have belonged to our hidden author? What could it mean otherwise?