Why Shakespeare did not contribute to the wealth of literature in his own time?
(s. List 1 and List2 , taken from EEBO)
[Marlowe equals Shakespeare]
Thesis = Deadly threatened Marlowe 1593 had to fake his death, to give up his identity and name for safety resons, to live incognito, and to continously write under changing initials, pen names, pseudonyms incl.Shake-speare or other faked identities.
In »Polimanteia« 1595 (Transl. ="Many meanings"), an unidentifiable W.C. informs us not only about the meaning of the title of his book (You should judge the fall [lawfull and unlawfull?] of a Common-wealth) but also about many of his convictions such as his "publishing" philosophy :
»… by the doubt of that name which those (...) letters might portend: for not knowing the trueth, he talketh by circumstances and darke signes, sometimes telling the trueth to gaine credit to his false lyes, seeing by a malicious instinct he striveth to obscure the trueth, to the great dammage of mortall men. For his delight is in falshood, and his ioy is in our fall.
The unidentifiable author W.C. (William Cowell? William Clarke?) seems to be one the first who was informed about the poem "Lucrecia" and the sweetness of an "author" Shak-speare who had not published before under this name and who set the poem in relation to an eloquent man "Gaveston", the very positive figure out of Marlowe's play "Edward II" (1594):
Who was W.C.? Who was the author of "Polimanteia"?
Why he could not have belonged to the pseudonyms and faked identities of our hidden author and poet-genius?