Also for Shakespeare, it is possible to find throughout his plays and poetry, the handling of many philosophical problems, themes and ideas, as well as the traces of several philosophical influences and readings.
How can it be explained that at the height of Shakespeare's creative period (1599) an independent person wrote such an outstanding poetic and philosophical work? How it is to be understood that the towering poet, thinker and philosopher Shakespeare dared at any time to use the literary genre of a philosophical treatise (in poem form)?
*1) The Rhetorical structure of Sir John Davies 's Noce Teipsum. The yearbook of English Studies 1974