Since Waugaman believes that the real (true) Shakespeare is Edward de Vere (17th Earl of Oxford), he interpretes the multiple contextual parallels as a principal example of the Rival Poets [Marlowe] Poem that "engendered such intense admiration and jealousy in de Vere".
I learned that one of Leander’s speeches (I:199-294) contains a hundred lines with many striking parallels with the first 17 Sonnets of Shakespeare. (as noted by previous scholars).
Waugaman's conclusion: "These borrowings illustrate the mutual literary influence of de Vere and Marlowe on each other."
Should we really believe that Shakespeare (in the case, he was Edward de Vere or the Stratford man) was such a mediocre poet, plagiarist and literary theft?
Why Waugaman is not (even) rudimentary able to consider the Marlowe=Shakespeare Thesis as a plausibe working hypothesis ?