The play wasn't published until 1633, long after all those who would have been involved in court saving Marlowe from the Star Chamber, were dead. It is of note that Marlowe was referred to as "Machevill" by his friends.(T.Nashe, R.Greene, G.Harvey) It is not known at what time the prologue was added to the play, most likeley 1601 after a noticeable revival and textual revision of the play. For several reasons the play was printed for the first time only in 1633.
The first words of the prologue clearly clarify Marlowe’s situation: The world believes that he is dead, (»albeit all the world think Machiavel is dead, but in reality yet was his soul but flown beyond the Alps; and , now the Guise is dead, is come from France and frolic with his friends. … and let them know that I am Machiavel« .The historical Machiavelli was dead at that time for nearly 100 years. Machevil , who plays no role whatsoever within the play. marlowe expresses in the prologe, that
«, »to frolic with his friends« »to some perhaps my name is odiuos (»but such as love me, guard me from their tongues« »let them kow that I am Machiavell »admired I am of those who hate me most«, »though some speak openly against my books«).
Marlowe is fully aware that some speak openly against his book«),. (»Yet will they read me and thereby attain To Peter’s chair« they do not want to conflict with religion, he count religion but a childish toy »and hold there is no sin but ignorance«). He reflects, wich rumors my have distributed his alleged murder (»Birds of the air will tell of murders past (»I am ashamed to hear such fooleries«). (»Let me be envied and not pitied!«). (»But whither am I bound? I come not, I, To read a lecture here in Britanie, But to present the tragedy of a Jew«).
This statement can easily see Marlowe as the author of "Polimanteia". Who else would have had in 1594 reason to accuse Machiavelli as the cause of his "supposed" demise?