Some years ago I wrote in a blog [nr 102) that I felt it dishonest, that Wells deliberately obscures the problem by falsifying the spelling of the name of the Stratfordman. There do exist no "familiar" records (like babtism, wedding, births, deaths, will, signatures) wheresoever, showing the Stratford mans name written as "Shake" instead of "Shak". By claiming with the title phrase that the two names are the same, and spelling them the same, Wells deliberately misleads the reader from the beginning into thinking that the Stratford man of course could have been the author. If Wells would have been a honest man he would have put the question:
Why Mr. Shakspere [from Stratford] was the author Shakespeare [of the "Sonnets" or of "Romeo and Juliet?]" or simplified
Why Shakspere was Shakespeare ?
"Did William the businessman from Stratford write"Romeo& Juliet" and "Hamlet"?