Why Shakespeare was Shakespeare
It's dishonest, that Wells falsifies the spelling of the name of the Stratfordman. There do exist no "familiar" records (like babtism, wedding, births, deaths, will, signatures) wheresoever showing the Stratford mans name written as "Shake" instead of "Shak".
By claiming with the title Phrase that the two names are the same, and spelling them the same , Wells deliberately misleads the reader from the beginning into thinking that of course the Stratford man was also the author.
If Wells would have been a honest man he would have put the question '
Was Mr. Shakspere [from Stratford] the author Shakespeare [of the "Sonnets" or of "Romeo and Juliet?]"